LDS Discussions, which is maintained by the pseudonymous "Mike" and is one of the more even-handed anti-Mormon sites out there, has a whole essay on the question of "Tight vs Loose Translation" of the Book of Mormon, defining the terms thus:
Tight translation: As outlined above by FAIR's use of Emma Smith’s quote above, a tight translation is where Joseph Smith is directly translating the Book of Mormon via the seer/peep stone in the hat word for word. The translation of the plates would appear on Joseph Smith’s seer/peep stone in the hat, and Joseph Smith would dictate them to his scribe. This method of translation is a literal one and does not afford Joseph Smith the ability to change or alter the words as the tight translation must be direct for the stone to reveal further words as we will see from the accounts of the translation.
Loose translation: This method of translation would give Joseph Smith "inspiration" through revelation, which allowed Joseph Smith the freedom to dictate the text of the Book of Mormon through his own milieu, putting the text of the Book of Mormon in his own words. Effectively Joseph Smith would be given the general lessons and concepts through revelations, but it was then left to Joseph Smith to weave those into a story that could be understood in his time. Some have argued that this would be a revelation of “pure intelligence” where Joseph Smith was flooded with the story itself, some say Joseph Smith could see the actual Book of Mormon events in visions, and some say he got literal translations but was then free to make changes as he saw fit.
Mike's argument is that all eyewitness accounts of the translation support the "tight translation" theory: Joseph Smith saw a bit of text, read it out, made sure his scribe had copied it down correctly (including spelling), then saw the next bit of text, and so on. This implies that every word of the text was revealed, and that Smith played no more active or creative a role in the production of the text than did his scribes. A few aspects of the text -- for example, the use of unfamiliar words like cureloms and ziff, which were not understood by Smith but were faithfully copied down as received -- support this theory.
Overall, though, the English text of the Book of Mormon strongly implies a loose translation. It is full of anachronisms, historically problematic uses of the King James Bible, and 19th-century Protestant theology. The original text was also full of misspellings and grammatical errors, most of which have since been corrected. Smith himself also apparently felt at liberty to alter the revealed text in more substantial ways -- for example by inserting "the son of" in places where the first edition had portrayed Jesus as being God himself. All these issues constitute overwhelming evidence that, if the text of the Book of Mormon was indeed revealed, the revelation was filtered through the limited understanding of Joseph Smith, introducing countless errors and changes that were not in the original source text on the golden plates.
Mike argues that defenders of the Book of Mormon can't have it both ways: They can't say that the text was revealed word for word, as all eyewitnesses attest, and then turn around and say that problematic aspects of the text reflect Joseph Smith's own language and limited understanding.
I believe we can have it both ways. My own theory is that Joseph Smith experienced every word of the text as "given" or revealed -- that he was reading off what he saw, not consciously interpreting it or putting it in his own words -- but that what he saw was nevertheless substantially influenced and corrupted by his own understanding.
I briefly introduced this theory in my inaugural post here, "Lehi, Nephi, and the pillar of fire that "dwelt upon a rock": A case study of hard-to-define biblical parallels" (September 2023). I gave an example from my own experience as a dabbler in the art of remote viewing, in which one is given a string of numbers which have been assigned to a "target" about which one knows nothing and then attempts to perceive that target by psychic means. Later, the identity of the target is revealed, and the accuracy of the viewing can be assessed.
In the example I discussed there, I received and sketched an image of a sloping roof with dark shingles, with a very large snail shell on it. After the viewing, I checked the target image and found that it was indeed a photograph of a snail shell on a dark surface sloping in the direction indicated in my sketch -- but that the surface was rock, not a shingled roof. This was undeniably a "hit," an example of successful extrasensory perception -- the odds of my having seen a snail shell on a dark sloping surface by chance are effectively zero -- but the "shingled roof" aspect was an error. Did I see a dark sloping surface and then reason that it was most likely a shingled roof? No. I saw the roof -- including the opposite slope, with no snail on it -- just as clearly as I saw everything else. The whole thing was experienced as "given," with absolutely no sense that I was interpreting or expanding on what I saw. And yet, apparently, I was. The roof came not from the target image but from my own experience and expectations about the likely identity of dark sloping surfaces.
I recently read an even clearer example of this sort of thing from a much more professional remote viewer: Courtney Brown of the Farsight Institute, in his magnum opus, Remote Viewing: The Science and Theory of Nonphysical Perception. Brown is describing two different remote-viewing sessions in which, unbeknownst to him going in, the target was the same: the assassination of Abraham Lincoln.
The first of the two sessions is very accurate with regard to location and environment. Descriptions of Washington, D.C. are very clear. Descriptions and sketches of various landmarks (such as the Washington Monument and what appears to be the Lincoln Memorial) in Washington, D.C. are also clear. Descriptions and sketches of what appears to be the Ford Theater are quite good . . . . The session is also very accurate with regard to perceptions of the nature of the primary subject (a U.S. president). In this session I do not perceive the actual attack on President Lincoln, although I do report a mental despondency on the part of the President at the time of the assassination event.
The second of my two sessions for this target is also very accurate with regard to location and environment. Descriptions of Washington, D.C. are very clear. Descriptions of various landmarks (such as the Washington Monument and the Lincoln Memorial) in Washington, D.C. are also clear, and some of the sketches with identifying deductions are quite remarkable. (See figures 6.1, 6.2a, and 6.2b.) Descriptions and sketches of what appear to be the Ford Theater (or components of the Ford Theater) are quite good. However, I do not perceive the actual attack on President Lincoln.
This gibes with my own experience -- that the relative "importance" or salience of different aspects of the target seems to have no effect on remote viewing, and that often peripheral elements are perceived at the expense of the main target. Still, getting clear images of Washington, D.C., both times is impressive, given that this was part of an experiment with dozens of sessions, with targets ranging from an 18th-century naval battle to the largest crater on the Moon. Brown's perceptions of the Washington Monument and the Lincoln Memorial were so clear that they were chosen as cover illustrations for the paperback edition of the book. But one major problem, which Brown fails to mention, is that there was obviously no Lincoln Memorial at the time of Lincoln's assassination. This element of his viewing is a glaring anachronism.
Nevertheless, Brown perceived the Lincoln Memorial in direct low-level terms. It's not as if he got a general impression of Washington and then filled in the details based on his own knowledge -- not consciously, at any rate. Here are the figures mentioned in the text I have quoted above:
7 comments:
I never commented before (because I didn't have anything to add), but I love your explorations of Book of Mormon lore. So, thank you.
Also, this post immediately reminded me of this interview with a Mormon practitioner of remote viewing: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=7X93SblH8wo
Thanks, Laeth. This blog gets relatively little visible engagement, so it's good to know it is in fact being read and appreciated.
I thought from your plug on the main blog that you were going to try and remote view the actual translation process itself. But this post is good too.
Do you have any thoughts about those who see anachronisms but they are to ~1600 England, not 1800s New York. For example, Skousen thinks 'pleasing bar of God' was the clerk transcribing 'pleading bar of God' incorrectly 'pleading bar' being a 1500s or so legal terminology long archaic aby the 1800s, and 'pleasing bar' not existing in the English language prior to the Book of Mormon.
Re: Deutero-Isaiah. It is odd that trito-Isaiah (and also the first chapter), is not quoted at all in the BOM. Your theory explains the first, but not the second, unless that happened by pure chance.
Interesting points, HS.
Regarding Trito-Isaiah, I think it is referenced in the BoM — for example “the robe of righteousness” (Isa. 61:10, 2 Ne. 9:14) — though no chapters are reproduced wholesale. Colby Townsend has done some work on this, I believe.
“Pleasing bar” is certainly an odd turn of phrase, and Skousen’s emendation makes a lot of sense. I would assume that “pleading bar” probably was known by JS, not in its original legal sense but as a religious metaphor. Religious language tends to be conservative like that. It might be worth looking into.
Yes, I think I will be reading his 'The Earliest Text' next. I just finished Bradleys '116 pages'.
If I may, your theory is that the Book of Mormon was engraved in a highly condensed form and Joseph Smith unpacked it into its current form, similar to Daniel extracting all that meaning from the words 'mene mene tekek upharsin'. However, it was strictly speaking his subconscious (including spiritual gifts) that did the translation, without conscious awareness. Assumed is that the subconscious has total recall to incorporate phrases such as 'robes of righteousness' but does not know things that never occurred to Joseph Smith, which is why the style of the Book of Mormon diverges wildly from the KJV in some ways, some of them ways that would be obvious to even the most rudimentary scholar of linguistics. In short someone other than Joseph Smith (the conscious Joseph Smith, at least) translated it, and it was not Deity either. Kind of crazy, but other explanations have some severe problems as well.
This attempted 'translation' of some of the copied down characters, are of interest to this discussion: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yciPd61VHaY
I saw that about the translation of the "Caractors" document. I've downloaded his paper about it but haven't had time to look at it yet.
Let's get real about the Book of Mormon. Skousen's done a lot of real text-critical work, since 1988 and finishing this year, so 36 years. And since 2014, S. Carmack has collaborated.
The more accurate terminology, from Skousen 1998, is tight control and loose control. Still, these terms are easily confused and conflated with tight and loose translation, which many associate with literal/functional/conceptual translation modes. Better to be clear by using the plain terminology: revealed words / ideas. Of course, from a non-revealed perspective, the text of 270k words was just a creative dictation of fiction, somehow accomplished in under 70 days of dictation (see John Welch, BYU Studies, 2020?, for the estimate).
But suppose one thinks it was the result of revelation. 188 unique names in thousands of instances argue for words, since names are words not ideas. Also, even if Joseph Smith in 1820s America was somehow a native speaker of 1590s Elizabethan English (which is still a view held by some today, who are invested in the text being a revelation of ideas), the FORM of the English language could not have been achieved by a mere mortal such as Smith. That's a real problem.
Ultimately, from a revelatory perspective, the lexis and syntax (and even the biblical quotes), argue that the Lord sent Smith words in 1829 (as is rather plainly suggested in 2n2724).
Indeed, syntactically speaking, the Book of Mormon is quite different from roughly contemporary pseudo-archaic production. And it is also quite different in various ways from King James syntax. And there are important aspects that even an Elizabethan speaker would not have produced. One is the heavily finite clausal complementation after several high-frequency verbs of influence, the main ones being cause, command, suffer. Hundreds of instances. No other English text has its level of finite complementation. And no text has its level of obsolete ditransitive finite complementation after these three verbs, either. There was no model of these things for Smith, and no pseudo-archaic text is this way. Smith's model was heavy infinitival complementation for these verbs.
There are many other syntactic and lexical niceties to consider, which constitute the most objective evidence, and I won't bother you with any more.
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